ralphon » Di 10. Jun 2014, 12:06 hat geschrieben:Zur Zeit kann eine Bank nicht, wenn
alle Kunden ihr Geld fordern würden, mit ihren Eigenmitteln alle auszahlen,
weil die Gelder in Kredite gebunden sind.
Inwiefern binden Kredite Gelder der Bankkunden?
"One common misconception is that banks act simply as intermediaries, lending out the deposits that savers place with them. In this view deposits are typically ‘created’ by the saving decisions of households, and banks then ‘lend out’ those existing deposits to borrowers, for example to companies looking to finance investment or individuals wanting to purchase houses. In fact, when households choose to save more money in bank accounts, those deposits come simply at the expense of deposits that would have otherwise gone to companies in payment for goods and services. Saving does not by itself increase the deposits or ‘funds available’ for banks to lend. Indeed, viewing banks simply as intermediaries ignores the fact that, in reality in the modern economy, commercial banks are the creators of deposit money. This article explains how, rather than banks lending out deposits that are placed with them, the act of lending creates deposits — the reverse of the sequence typically described in textbooks."
http://www.bankofengland.co.uk/publicat ... eation.pdf
Am Vollgeldsystem bestechend ist meiner Ansicht nach, dass dieser (an und für sich fast unerhörte) Akt, durch Eingehen einer bloßen Verbindlichkeit Kaufkraft zu generieren, komplett auf eine staatliche Institution übertragen wird.
Das heißt nicht, dass ich restlos überzeugt bin, dass ein solches Vollgeld wie das hier vorgeschlagene funktionieren würde.
"Banks do not, as too many textbooks still suggest, take deposits of existing money from savers and lend it out to borrowers: they create credit and money ex nihilo – extending a loan to the borrower and simultaneously crediting the borrower’s money account."
Lord Adair Turner